I am saying the routerID don't have to be in the same subnet. If these two
routerID is the direct connect interface IPs, then they must be in the same
subnet. Otherwise, even the OSPF adj won't be established.
Regards,
-ns
-----Original Message-----
From: Tim Devries [mailto:zsolutions@cogeco.ca]
Sent: 4 April 2002 5:47 PM
To: Shi, Ning; dhiman@cs.bu.edu
Cc: cisco-nsp@puck.nether.net
Subject: Re: [nsp] virtual link
----- Original Message -----
From: "Shi, Ning" <ning.shi@bellnexxia.com>
To: <dhiman@cs.bu.edu>
Cc: <cisco-nsp@puck.nether.net>
Sent: Thursday, April 04, 2002 3:16 PM
Subject: RE: [nsp] virtual link
> Now go back to your question, these two interfaces do not have to be in
the
> same subnet(I will never put them in the same subnet. By doing that, you
> will never be able to reach each other even you enable routing on those
> interfaces) and you don't need to be able to ping each other to make the
VL
> work.
>
> Hope this is help.
>
> -ns
Are you saying that the directly connected (or intermediate) router (i.e.
between say area 1 router to area1 interface on router 2) doesn't have to be
in the same network? Or are you talking about the third router that has an
interface in area 0? According to this document, they are in the same area:
http://www.cisco.com/warp/public/104/ospfdb7.html
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