[cisco-voip] Need some facts regarding DID's, Enterprise VoIP and LATAs
Bill Simon
BillS at psu.edu
Thu Aug 2 15:12:30 EDT 2007
Can you confirm this?
We were told that, unless licensed as a "telco," (CLEC) we may not do
any toll-bypass by sending traffic over VoIP to a location with a local
gateway.
-----Original Message-----
From: cisco-voip-bounces at puck.nether.net
[mailto:cisco-voip-bounces at puck.nether.net] On Behalf Of Matthew Saskin
Sent: Thursday, August 02, 2007 3:10 PM
To: Dark Fiber
Cc: cisco-voip at puck.nether.net
Subject: Re: [cisco-voip] Need some facts regarding DID's, Enterprise
VoIP and LATAs
The other responses answered the 911 portions correctly.
WRT the other issue, there is no legal problem with what you're doing -
it's similar to tail-end hop-off. It can become questionable overseas
but I'm pretty certain that it's completely allowed within the United
States. In fact, the only country I know it's illegal in that I do work
with is India.
-matt
Dark Fiber wrote:
> In the last couple of weeks I have been dealing with e911/911 issues
> internally at work. In trying to resolve and provide the best
possible
> solution for 911 calling to all employees throughout the region I
ended
> having to pull in our legal and regulatory folks to address some of
> these issues and what they felt we needed to provide at a minimum to
our
> employees, so that we make sure we are completely covered.
>
> In doing so I begin to layout the network and phone system for them
> explaining what we have and where we are going and such. Upon seeing
> this the regulatory folk begin telling me that this is wrong /
illegal.
> Basically saying that the way we have deployed phones and Call
> Manager and such is wrong and needs to be corrected. I was seriously
> taken aback by this, never did I question our phone deployment if you
> will, I mean heck this meeting was about 911 you know.
>
> The first thing they tell me is that DID's are for internal calling /
> usage, and not meant for external or incoming calling? I was like
blown
> away, this is completely OPPOSITE of what I have always thought and
> known. DID's are direct inward dialing, you can 100 DID's if you will
> on a PRI from your service provider and assign them to individuals
> internally so that users can have a direct inward number from the
> outside. Heck even wikipedia "which I know is not the end all source
of
> all knowledge" but fairly reliable states exactly what I have always
> known DID's as.
>
> Next they begin telling me I have to get circuits and DID's / numbers
> that correspond to each of my physical locations!
>
> Basically, right now we have various small locations spread out in
> different cities. Say as an example Houston, Dallas and San Antonio.
> Main office say is Dallas, my call managers and gateways are there in
> Dallas. I get PRI's to terminate there and I have a large block of
> DID's all for Dallas.
>
> All ip phones are setup with four digit extension, and are tied to a
DID
> from Dallas even though the phone and user may be in Houston or
> something. User in Houston places a call it goes out of Dallas, and
> incoming calls obviously go into Dallas then over our fiber to
Houston.
> Blah blah, nothing new there I know alot of places that do the same
thing.
>
> Anyway, so they tell me I can't do this. That legally I have to get
> circuits in each market, and provide those users numbers in that
market.
>
> I just don't buy this. I mean the past three employees I have been at
> and managed the call managers they all had similar setups and I am not
> the one who set them up so I know I was not the only one who believed
it
> was perfectly acceptable to do things this way.
>
> I would love some facts to use to show that it is perfectly acceptable
> to do this. I can't find anything from a legal perspective to
> substantiate what they said or what I believe.
>
> I even pointed out VoIP providers like Vonage and stuff, and said if
it
> was illegal to do then don't you think these companies that base their
> business on just that sort of thing would exist? That's one of the
main
> selling points you can get a number from any market in the US pretty
> much no matter where you live. Of course their answer was they are
> regulated differently. And who knows maybe so.
>
> Any thoughts or arguments out there on this? Would love to be able to
> point to some law or case or something regarding this rather then just
> thoughts and examples since they would have more weight for me to
prove
> my point. But I would love to hear anything at this point.
>
>
>
>
>
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