[cisco-voip] Call loop?
Alex
ecralar at hotmail.com
Fri Jun 8 07:24:17 EDT 2007
Ruben,
Good question! I believe what you are looking for is called a "hairpin" and
it works only if specifically configured with "call treatment" commands.
I might be wrong, though. More formal question, in my opinion, would be
"does Cisco allow incoming dialpeer and outgoing dialpeer to be the same?"
My 2 UK pence :-)
Cheers
Alex
----- Original Message -----
From: "Ruben Montes (Europe)" <Ruben.Montes at eu.didata.com>
To: <cisco-voip at puck.nether.net>
Sent: Thursday, June 07, 2007 8:35 PM
Subject: [cisco-voip] Call loop?
>
> Hi,
>
> I have one doubt, just for curiosity... Imagine we have an H323
> configuration similar to the following one:
>
>
> num-exp 913333112 112
>
> dial-peer voice 2 voip
> description Internal
> destination-pattern 1..
> voice-class codec 1
> session target ipv4:1.1.1.1
> dtmf-relay h245-alphanumeric
> no vad
>
> dial-peer voice 4 pots
> description Emergency external
> destination-pattern 112
> direct-inward-dial
> port 0/0/0:15
> forward-digits all
>
> In the port 0/0/0, we have an E1 to the PSTN with a DID 913333112, with
> matches an internal extension with number 112, but we also have a
> dial-peer to reach 112 through the PSTN.
>
> When we have an incoming call, we translate the DID to 112, in this
> moment, the call goes to port 0/0/0 or to the CCM? We will create a loop
> that makes internal extension 112 impossible to be called from the
> outside?
>
> I have tested this and the call goes to the internal number, not to the
> PSTN
>
> Longest match is dial-peer 4, it should go to the PSTN, but I assume the
> call doesn't match this dial-peer because it can't enter and go out
> through the same port? Is that correct?
>
> Regards,
>
> Ruben
>
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