[cisco-voip] Strange behaviour of CME

[Nick Matthews]

Transcoding is only required when there is a codec mismatch.  In this case
it's something like:

Phone 1:
g711ulaw
g711alaw
g729r8
g729br8
g722
...
etc

GW1 to GW2:
g729r8

Phone 2:
same as above phone 1


Since g729r8 is available by all, there is no need for transcoding.

-nick

On Tue, Jan 25, 2011 at 2:47 PM, ccieid1ot <ccieid1ot at gmail.com> wrote:

> The phones has built in dsp to do the transcoding.
>
> duy
> ccie #27737 voice
>
> tmobile g2
> On Jan 25, 2011 10:03 AM, "Cisco Voip" <cisco_newbie at yahoo.com> wrote:
> > Hi all.
> >
> > I have setup the current setup in my lab
> >
> > IPcommunicator-1
> >
> ------------------R1-GW-------------------R2-GW-------------IPcommunicator-2
> >
> > SCCP (g711) default (g729)
> >
> > On R1 i simply created a dial-peer voice 2141 voip, and defined the
> session
> > target and destination pattern, and also codec to be g729r8. Now when i
> call
> > from IPc-1 to IPc-2, the call is successful !!
> >
> > I have set this up in dynamips and 2 IPcs are infact vmware machines.
> What i
> > dont understand is, why there was no need for transcoding ? the default
> codec
> > between R1-GW and IPc-1 is g711, while between R1-GW and R2-GW, i set it
> to
> > g729, so isnt transcoding needed here ?
> >
> >
> >
> >
>
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>
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