Something I never read about OSPF, but that seems *not quite correct*;
I have two ABR routers interconnected with a bunch of other routers over
atm full mesh on the area 0 side, and connected to the pop mesh in area 1
via Ethernet. One of the routers carries upstream connections (router A)
and the other is a customer aggregation router (router B).
They are also IBGP peers.
All the traffic from router B to router A goes via the atm vc in area 0.
No traffic goes via the ethernet media in area 1, even though the ospf cost
is lower.
The upstream interface is in area 0.
Is this expected protocol behavior? I have had no knowledge about ospf
path selection biased towards one area over the other where multiple paths
were concerned.
IOS is 11.1(29)CC1, C7507.
Thanks for any lights you can illuminate!
-- Thanks and regards,Dave A Onvoy/Internet - Internet in Minnesota since 1987 -----/|\--------------------------------------------------------------+ - / | \ Dave Bergum, Sr. Network Engineer <bergum@MR.Net> | - /__|__\ 2829 University Av SE, Gab: (612)362-5812 | - j---'---/ Suite #200 Fax: (612)362-5899 | -~~~~~~~~~~~~~ Minneapolis, MN 55414 Beep: (612)203-1605 | ----------------------------------------------------------------------+
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